• Flying Squid@lemmy.world
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    2 years ago

    It’s also not the Tree of Knowledge, it’s the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil. And that presents a problem:

    If Adam and Eve did not yet understand what is and is not a good thing to do, they could not possibly have understood that it was not good to disobey God. Eve did not know the serpent was evil. And yet he punishes Adam and Eve for doing what they did not realize was wrong of them to do.

    • saltesc@lemmy.world
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      2 years ago

      Go a step before that. Why’d God put the tree there in the first place?

      God created sin, introduced it to humanity, and ensured evil would spread across the earth.

      • Flying Squid@lemmy.world
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        2 years ago

        True. He even admits it in Isaiah:

        Isaiah 45:7 - I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things.

          • Flying Squid@lemmy.world
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            2 years ago

            A judge might have a “right” to punish people for things they didn’t know were wrong, but this is a judge who created those people without giving them the capacity to know right from wrong in the first place and then punishing them for doing the wrong thing anyway.

            And of course a Christian apologetics website is going to give the kindest possible interpretation to that passage.

            I’d also note that it’s part of the Jewish half of the Bible, so maybe finding out what Christians think about what it means is the wrong way to go about convincing people of your point. Maybe consult a Rabbi’s interpretation instead.

      • dustyData@lemmy.world
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        2 years ago

        It always complete the picture to understand that the creation myth used in the Bible was not Jewish or Christian in origin. It was an appropriation of a pagan myth of the era. Like most Christianity, it is just a syncretism to make the cult palatable to the newly recruited. “Oh yes, that thing that you already believe in was totally our god”.

        • Flying Squid@lemmy.world
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          2 years ago

          I think all major religious myths, like languages themselves, are derivative of previous myths on some level. Sure, there was a proto-mythology at some point, but it expanded, changed, etc. until it divided into multiple religions. And, of course, Judaism beget Christianity beget Islam, but all of them took other religious myths that were popular at the time and wove them into the tapestry.

          • dustyData@lemmy.world
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            2 years ago

            This is colonial thinking. “Civilization just happens to be the natural evolution of what I am doing. Your ways are barbarian backwards savagery”. It is the same logic.

            There’s nothing natural or linear in religious belief. Catholicism itself is fragmented into hundreds of sects, and so is every single religion ever to have existed. Adapted to the particular capricious vanities of the local clergy and the established local customs. Christians taking some Jewish elements was just a manipulation tactic. I’m also sure some Islam sects would behead you for suggesting that Islam is a derivative of Christianity. The theory of a proto religion is also wrong, we know for a fact that not all of modern religions started from the same proto-belief, but ancient religions are actually quite varied and distinct.

            • Flying Squid@lemmy.world
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              2 years ago

              I didn’t make a claim even remotely like that. I was not talking about superiority in any way. I’m not a Muslim and what you’re saying I’m claiming would only make sense if I was a Muslim since that was the end of the “evolution” I was talking about.

              Would you make the same claim about proto-languages, that modern languages are not derived from them?

              • dustyData@lemmy.world
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                2 years ago

                Yes, any proto-whatever theory is colonialist in essence. It’s a very heated argument in anthropology, sociology and social psychology. The current consensus is that it is only valid for the indo-european migration, and a version exist for the proto-sino-tibetan migration. But, we understand that it can only be claimed to apply thus far, and with all sorts of modern ideological biases and caveats. Both language and religion are extremely complex social phenomena that have independently appeared all throughout history. And every time they have their very unique and distinct qualities. There’s no unified tree of languages that has enough evidence to be authoritative. And there’s no such linear derivation equivalent for religion. It is all just pop-sci feefees.

                • Flying Squid@lemmy.world
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                  2 years ago

                  Wait… you’re saying that languages aren’t actually derived from older languages and anyone who thinks so is colonialist?

                  Because I would look into where the ‘ist’ suffix in ‘colonialist’ comes from. Believe it or not, it didn’t pop into existence along with the rest of the English language.

                  I’m sorry you don’t like it that Judaism was derived in great part by Babylonian mythos which, themselves, likely were derived from a previous mythos, but I’m not sure what that has to do with colonialism or any idea of superiority and I’m sorry you don’t like the simple fact that we can point to specific stories which eventually made their way into Judaism and then on to Christianity and Islam.

                  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gilgamesh_flood_myth

                  As for why that is linear? Because that’s how time works. The Babylonians came first, then the Jews, then the Christians, then the Muslims. And each one derived their religion from the previous one.

    • zaph@sh.itjust.works
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      2 years ago

      And yet he punishes Adam and Eve for doing what they did not realize was wrong of them to do.

      You say this like punishing people who don’t understand the rules isn’t a fundamental part of christianity.

    • RobotToaster@mander.xyz
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      2 years ago

      The Gnostic interpretation always made more sense to me. The serpent being a form of Christ.

    • Aurenkin@sh.itjust.works
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      2 years ago

      Also God kinda lied to them or at least deceived them by saying they’ll die if they eat the fruit from memory.

        • Aurenkin@sh.itjust.works
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          2 years ago

          but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it. For in the day that thou eatest thereof, thou shalt surely die.

          Source

          Sounds like a lie to me but I don’t know the original Hebrew so maybe it depends on your translation. To be fair it would be on the mild side of morally objectionable stuff God does in the bible.

          • samus12345@lemmy.world
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            2 years ago

            Found this online:

            The Hebrew phrase in English is more literally:

            “Tree knowledge good evil eat day eat die (dying) die”

            The Hebrew is, literally, die-die (muwth-muwth) with two different verb tenses (dying and die), which can be translated as “surely die” or “dying you shall die.” This indicates the beginning of dying, an ingressive sense, which finally culminates with death.

  • BastingChemina@slrpnk.net
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    2 years ago

    I think apple used to be a generic term for fruits.

    It is especially apparent for exotic fruits, for example here is a list of fruits from the Caribbean, none of then are related to the European apple:

    • golden apple
    • wax apple/rose apple
    • pineapple
    • sugar apple
    • custard apple
    • sik0fewl@lemmy.ca
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      2 years ago

      It can, but I’m not sure if that explains why it’s often represented as an apple in the west.

      Here’s what Wikipedia has to say:

      In Western Europe, the fruit was often depicted as an apple. This was possibly because of a misunderstanding of – or a pun on – two unrelated words mālum, a native Latin noun which means ‘evil’ (from the adjective malus), and mâlum, another Latin noun, borrowed from Greek μῆλον, which means ‘apple’. In the Vulgate, Genesis 2:17 describes the tree as “de ligno autem scientiae boni et mali”: “but of the tree [literally ‘wood’] of knowledge of good and evil” (mali here is the genitive of malum). There is nothing in the Bible indicating that the forbidden fruit of the tree of knowledge was an apple.[10]

  • Artyom@lemm.ee
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    2 years ago

    My money’s on it being a pomegranate originally. Apples wouldn’t have existed in the fertile crescent over 2000 years ago. Pomegranates are also messy and look bloody when eating them, fitting the “carnal knowledge” side of the story. I’ve heard other people suggest they could have been dates, but pomegranates seem like a way better fit for the story.

    • pikmeir@lemmy.world
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      2 years ago

      Adam and Eve never once complained about how freaking annoying it is to eat a pomegranate because 90% of it is dried bark and every tiny seed has its own inedible seed so I doubt that’s what it was.

    • AreaSIX @lemm.ee
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      2 years ago

      There’s evidence of apple cultivation in the middle east from around 5000 years ago as far as I know.

  • Infynis@midwest.social
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    2 years ago

    Apple is probably the most common interpretation because a lot of languages use it as kind of a vague fruit term, and the Bible has been retranslated and reinterpreted roughly one million times. The French call potatoes apples

  • SplashJackson@lemmy.ca
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    2 years ago

    The good thing about fiction is if there is a gap, you can fill it with your own headcanon

  • Chewget@lemm.ee
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    2 years ago

    Isn’t it a birds and the bees story translated through a religious conservative lense… The forbidden fruit is sex.

  • RunawayFixer@lemmy.world
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    2 years ago

    Imo it’s much more likely to have never been an actual piece of fruit. The story is probably an allegoric warning for some taboo subject and now we can only speculate on what was originally meant.

    My theory: Adam and Eve were convinced by Adam’s one eyed snake to fornicate, but then their dad found out and kicked them out.

  • minibyte@sh.itjust.worksdeleted by creator
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    2 years ago

    It’s common knowledge Mary Magdalene was a prostitute. I’m not sure why because it doesn’t say that anywhere in the Bible.

    Well, I do. It was the easiest way to suppress women’s power in the church and in general.

    • frezik@midwest.social
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      2 years ago

      I think there was a non-canonical gospel that said so. And yes, the early church seemed to be relatively liberal with women’s rights. A lot of that got clawed back with later additions and choices of what books to include in the biblical canon.

    • hark@lemmy.world
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      2 years ago

      That’s why people throw tomatoes when they want someone to get off the stage.